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The size of the DNA region specifically recognized by Type II restriction enzymes is typically:


A) 4 to 6 base pairs.
B) 10 to 15 base pairs.
C) 50 to 60 base pairs.
D) 200 to 300 base pairs.
E) about the size of an average gene.

F) A) and D)
G) A) and C)

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Explain the importance of outgroups for understanding genomic lineages.

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During their multiple migrations from Africa to the rest of the world, gene flow likely occurred between which populations of early humanoids?


A) between Neanderthals and modern humans
B) between Denisovans and modern humans
C) between Neanderthals and Denisovans
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.

F) B) and C)
G) A) and E)

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Describe the difference between selectable markers and screenable markers and their use in cloning experiments.

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Which statement is NOT correct?


A) Humans and chimpanzees share a common ancestor.
B) Orangutans are an outgroup when compared with humans and chimpanzees.
C) Humans and chimpanzees differ over approximately 4% of their genomes.
D) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
E) Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, while chimpanzees have 24 pairs of chromosomes.

F) B) and D)
G) C) and E)

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A convenient cloning vector with which to introduce foreign DNA into E. coli is a(n) :


A) E. coli chromosome.
B) messenger RNA.
C) plasmid.
D) yeast "ARS" sequence.
E) yeast transposable element.

F) C) and D)
G) C) and E)

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Which way is NOT a means of inserting DNA into a cell?


A) transformation
B) transfection
C) transduction
D) electroporation
E) ligation

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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Explain briefly the properties of the plasmid pBR322 that make it so convenient as a vector for cloning fragments of foreign DNA.

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The plasmid pBR322 has several propertie...

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Which would you expect to be larger, the percentage of the human genome that is translated into protein or the percentage of the genome of a bacterium that is translated into protein? Why?

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Certain restriction enzymes produce cohesive (sticky) ends. This means that they:


A) cut both DNA strands at the same base pair.
B) cut in regions of high GC content, leaving ends that can form more hydrogen bonds than ends of high AT content.
C) make a staggered double-strand cut, leaving ends with a few nucleotides of single-stranded DNA protruding.
D) make ends that can anneal to cohesive ends generated by any other restriction enzyme.
E) stick tightly to the ends of the DNA they have cut.

F) A) and B)
G) D) and E)

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Which technique is NOT used to make a cDNA library?


A) extraction of DNA from the organism you are studying
B) extraction of mRNA from the organism you are studying
C) use of reverse transcriptase to copy RNA into DNA
D) ligation of DNA into a cloning vector
E) insertion of a cloning vector into cells

F) All of the above
G) D) and E)

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A plasmid that encodes resistance to ampicillin and tetracycline is digested with the restriction enzyme PstI, which cuts the plasmid at a single site in the ampicillin-resistance gene. The DNA is then annealed with a PstI digest of human DNA, ligated, and used to transform E. coli cells. (a) What antibiotic would you put in an agar plate to ensure that the cells of a bacterial colony contain the plasmid? (b) What antibiotic-resistance phenotypes will be found on the plate? (c) Which phenotype will indicate the presence of plasmids that contain human DNA fragments?

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(a) To ensure that the cells of a bacter...

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Which statement about Type II restriction enzymes is FALSE?


A) Many make staggered (off-center) cuts within their recognition sequences.
B) Some cut DNA to generate blunt ends.
C) They are part of a bacterial defense system in which foreign DNA is cleaved.
D) They cleave and ligate DNA.
E) They cleave DNA only at recognition sequences specific to a given restriction enzyme.

F) B) and E)
G) A) and B)

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If you wanted to compare the sequence of a gene you isolated in the laboratory with a database of other genetic sequences, which tool would you use?


A) linkage analysis
B) BLAST
C) forensic DNA analysis
D) haplotype identification
E) quantitative PCR

F) A) and E)
G) B) and E)

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What sequences are required in an expression vector (for use with E. coli) that are NOT essential in a cloning plasmid?

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An expression vector is a type of plasmi...

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For what reason is the mitochondrial genome and the Y chromosome the easiest portions of human DNA to use to trace human evolutionary lineages?


A) All human cells have mitochondria and Y chromosomes.
B) Mitochondrial DNA and the Y chromosome do not undergo significant meiotic recombination.
C) The size of the mitochondrial genome and the Y chromosome is small.
D) Mitochondrial DNA and the Y chromosome exhibit very unstable haplotypes.
E) Mitochondrial DNA is inherited along both the male and female human evolutionary. lineages

F) A) and B)
G) A) and E)

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Which protein forms a complex with a guide RNA to target DNA for cleavage and destruction?


A) RecA
B) Cas9
C) EcoRI
D) Gal4p
E) GST

F) A) and C)
G) All of the above

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A good expression vector for protein expression in E. coli should have which feature(s) ?


A) an origin of replication
B) a selectable marker
C) a promoter, operator, and ribosome-binding site
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) None of the answers is correct.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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What is/are the distinguishing feature(s) of a shuttle vector?

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A shuttle vector is a type of plasmid or...

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In the laboratory, recombinant plasmids are commonly introduced into bacterial cells by:


A) electrophoresis-a gentle low-voltage gradient draws the DNA into the cell.
B) infection with a bacteriophage that carries the plasmid.
C) microinjection.
D) mixing plasmids with an extract of broken cells.
E) transformation-heat shock of the cells incubated with plasmid DNA in the presence of CaCl2.

F) All of the above
G) A) and B)

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